'At the end of Act I, Hamlet says that he intends to assume an "antic disposition", yet there is evidence in Act II to suggest that his mental disturbance is genuine' Discuss this statement with reference to Act II, explaining whether you believe that Hamlet's madness is real or feigned.
Throughout Act II the audience gathers from sources other than Hamlet that he is "mad". After his declaration in Act I that he will "put an antic disposition on" this is not a surprise, yet the accepted belief by the other characters that he is truly mad leads one to have doubts as to whether his behaviou…
